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bug transformation subclass #24
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It looks like there is no easy way to prove that We have It looks like the only way is to show that is using the axiom below and showing that it is a subclass of (<=>
(instance ?CLASS Class)
(subclass ?CLASS Entity)) But for that, I will need to use the fact that |
The question is how we should interpret the axioms below:
|
The original axiom could be used to type the arguments, but the translation turns this axiom useless.
(=> (subclass ?X ?Y) (and (instance ?X SetOrClass) (instance ?Y SetOrClass)))
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